A bank has taken possession of a flat after the owner defaulted and now instructs an agency to sell it. Which statement is correct?
Answer: The bank sells under its power of sale, usually 'as is' with limited information from the vendor. Why not the others: - The owner must also sign: The mortgagee exercises its own power of sale; the mortgagor need not sign. - A court order in every case: A legal charge commonly confers a power of sale exercisable without a court order once it has arisen. - The purchaser takes over the debt: The mortgage is discharged out of the price; the buyer takes free of it. Rule: A mortgagee in possession may sell under its power of sale. Because the bank lacks first-hand knowledge, it often sells on an 'as is' basis and may decline to give a Vendor's Statement, so the agent's own due diligence matters more. Source: Conveyancing and Property Ordinance (Cap. 219), section 51 and Fourth Schedule; Practice Regulation (Cap. 511C), Form 1; as at Oct 2026
Requiring the defaulting owner's signature on a mortgagee sale.
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Start practising →An original question written to the published EAQE syllabus. Figures in the explanation carry their effective dates; check them against the current law before relying on them. Independent exam practice. Not affiliated with or endorsed by the Estate Agents Authority (EAA) or the examination administrator.